Let M and f be as in the hypotheses of the meme.
Since f is a meme, then f∈M. That means f can be applied to itself. It follows that (f, f(f))∈f. We have then:
f ∈ {f, {f, f(f)}} = (f, f(f)) ∈ f
Thus, f∈f, violating the Axiom of Regularity. We conclude the meme is mathematical bullshit and I will not have it.
yetAnotherUser@discuss.tchncs.de 4 months ago
Is this well-defined? How can you tell whether something is an element of M?
Does such an f even exist? Why? Obviously it exists for some x in M but for all?
What’s a normie meme? Why does its existance follow?
This again requires f to be well-defined.
Prove it has that norm and please also prove it fulfills all properties of a norm.
[proof required]. Idea for a counterexample: A meme making fun of a meme in such a terrible way it cannot possibly be “danker”. Though this would require f^-1(terrible meme making fun of meme) to not be empty.