Comment on Eeeeee
xthexder@l.sw0.com 2 months agoAh, you’re right. I was thrown off by WolframAlpha saying the integral = π ≈ 3.1416 Both of those should be ≈
(x^2+y^2)=0 is the equation for a circle, so it’s definitely related. Just not quite how I thought.
OrganicMustard@lemmy.world 2 months ago
Also the 2D gaussian integral is used to give an insight on why the 1D gaussian integral is sqrt of pi. Here is a video with cool visualization for anyone interested.