Iirc, the hebrew word that gets translated to ‘lay’ is also a pretty suspect translation. Its only other usage in the OT (and our only other known context for it) is to describe a man pursuing his wife’s servant, and contextually, is more likely to mean ‘molest’ or ‘rape’ than to describe consensual sex.

The 2 words translated to ‘man’ are also different- the first being ‘ish’ the second being ‘zachar’

While both can generally refer to anyone male, ish can be used in the context of ‘anyone’, or ‘husband/ man of the house’, whereas Zachar is often used biblically to refer to young males, and /or subordinates.

So put together, this passage is likely ‘nobody should be molesting boys,’ or ‘a master shouldn’t rape his servants or children’