There are plenty of examples of languages with two, three, or no grammatical genders (which don’t always correlate with biological genders—e.g., some languages see ”animate” and “inanimate” as genders.)
If it isn’t arbitrary, why is there so much variation?
Pudutr0n@feddit.cl 5 days ago
I think it is, just not fully. You’d be hard pressed to find a language with 6 genders, for example.