I’m not 100% on top of my Marx, but AFAIK to Marx the bourgeoisie are all members of society who own capital and whose income comes from the profits of hiring wage laborers to operate that capital. If the ultra-rich were a proper aristocracy you’d see the rest of the bourgeoisie try (and succeed) to bring them down; instead they just bicker every now and then but close ranks whenever bourgeois society is threatened. For the most part these two groups make more sense as subcategories of one class than as two separate classes, with the feudalistic behavior of the ultra-rich just being how

Unfortunately it’s getting a bit worse than Marx predicted.

How so?