Suppose non-targeted ads didn’t generate enough revenue. Would it then be legitimate to require facebook to provide their service at a loss?
Comment on EU tells Meta it can't paywall privacy
krcr@sh.itjust.works 6 months agoThey can put all the ads they want to finance their services, but if they want to use targeted ones, they have to ask for unbiased users consent.
bleistift2@feddit.de 6 months ago
ArcticDagger@feddit.dk 6 months ago
I would say no. Just as it’s not legitimate for any other business to break the law even if that means they’re not going to be profitable
bleistift2@feddit.de 6 months ago
I can’t find the word ‘unbiased’ in the GDPR. All it asks for is consent:
In the case of facebook, the user gives consent for the purpose of being served targeted advertising in exchange for the provided service.
krcr@sh.itjust.works 6 months ago
Yes the term is “freely given consent” indeed, but more importantly: Why would you not trust the EU data protection board if they say themselves consent-or-pay is not okay?