Comment on Under what circumstances or axioms do spheres (the shape) have infinite surface area?

ch00f@lemmy.world ⁨2⁩ ⁨days⁩ ago

• mumblerfish@lemmy.world ⁨2⁩ ⁨days⁩ ago

  one can further prove that the sphere S**n−1 can be partitioned into as many pieces as there are real numbers (that is, {isplaystyle 2^{leph {0}}}pieces)

  Would the answer to OP be some argument along the lines of defining the surface area of the ball as the sum of the partitioned balls surface areas then?

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  • ch00f@lemmy.world ⁨2⁩ ⁨days⁩ ago

    IDK what OP is even going on about. This just seemed relevant.

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