Comment on Why do all languages share the same intonation for questions?

NellyAdagio@discuss.tchncs.de ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

• lvxferre@mander.xyz ⁨1⁩ ⁨month⁩ ago

  As I checked from an article, at least in Mandarin the usage of particles happens alongside the change in intonation, not at the expense of it.

  Also note that even [some? all?] Germanic languages show something similar - but instead of a particle, you get a syntactical movement (verb fronting) overtly marking the question. Examples:

  English	German
  This is an apple.	Das ist ein Apfel.
  Is this an apple?	Ist das ein Apfel?
  The cat meows.	Die Katze miaut.
  Does the cat meow?	Miaut die Katze?

  In English this is slightly obscured by do-support being obligatory for most verbs, but note how it’s the same process - if you were to insert the “do” without a question, in the third sentence, it would end as “the cat does meow”.

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