Could soviets used the lendlease arms on nazi germany in ww2? There is no question, there is a bunch of appeasing countries and Ukraine which is fighting for its right to exist.
Comment on NATO official: Ukraine has legal right to strike deep into Russia
koper@feddit.nl 3 days agoThat analogy is faulty. It’s undisputed that Ukraine can use its own arms. The question is about whether they can use the other arms given to them by NATO countries for there purposes.
Maalus@lemmy.world 3 days ago
koper@feddit.nl 3 days ago
Slow down. I merely clarified the matter being discussed. You might have a clear opinion on that matter, but that doesn’t change the fact that this is a dilemma without a simple answer.
Also note that the US was attacked and got directly involved in the war mere months after the lend-lease act was signed. That is what NATO is trying to avoid. The difference is that the Nazis did not have nukes and were already fighting a two-front war, so they had little power or incentive to escalate.
andrew_bidlaw@sh.itjust.works 3 days ago
What analogy? I didn’t draw any direct comparison, I think. Was there one?
Arms are given to Ukraine with every state dictating how they should not be used, with Ukraine being autonomous in their decision-making – as it sounds, they consult other countries, but decide things themselves. To my brief knowledge of past wars it was usually a ‘use how you want’ deal or a direct involvement and control from other party with boots on the ground, both don’t fit this exact situation. And it becomes even more unique since there are not one party, but a lot of them, all citing their own conditions on exact shipments, adding even more confusion to the situation.
I want to highlight the fact it’s one of the first very public case of countries donating weapons with such policies limiting their usage against enemy troops.